CUET UG Biology Booster Test 3 Medical Termination and STIs -

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CUET UG Biology Booster Test 3 Medical Termination and STIs

⏱️ 30 Minutes

❓ 20 Questions

📌 Answers are locked once submitted — results and explanations appear at the end.

CUET UG Biology Booster Test 3 Medical Termination and STIs

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QUESTION 1 OF 20

Why does the source describe the illegal performance of MTPs by "unqualified quacks" as a "disturbing trend"?

Answer Review

1 Why does the source describe the illegal performance of MTPs by "unqualified quacks" as a "disturbing trend"?

A Because it reduces the government's revenue.

B Because these practices are not only unsafe but could be fatal.

C Because it makes the 1st trimester safer.

D Because it is the only way to get a 2nd trimester abortion.

💡 Short Explanation

Illegal MTPs often lack aseptic conditions. "Quacks" lack the necessary medical expertise. These procedures lead to high rates of maternal morbidity and mortality.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The performance of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) by unqualified individuals (quacks) is dangerous because it ignores strict clinical protocols. Such procedures are frequently performed without proper sterilization or life-support equipment, leading to severe complications like hemorrhage, sepsis, or uterine perforation, which can be fatal for the mother. Option B is the correct reason for the "disturbing" classification.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Government revenue is not the priority concern in public health ethics regarding MTPs.
Option C → Illegal procedures make the 1st trimester less safe, not more.
Option D → 2nd trimester abortions are legally regulated, and "quacks" are never a valid or safe pathway for these.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Elimination

Application: Options A and C are factually incorrect regarding medical risks. D is logically flawed as quackery is never a sanctioned medical pathway.

Final Logic: Since illegal procedures cause death, B is the only logical health-based explanation.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Quack = Quick death (Avoid them)."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) –

2 Which of the following does NOT contribute to the risks associated with second-trimester abortions?

A Increased fetal development

B Use of unqualified quacks

C Performing the procedure within the first 12 weeks

D Delaying the procedure beyond the relatively safe window

💡 Short Explanation

First trimester (up to 12 weeks) is the safest period for MTP. Second trimester poses significantly higher risks. "Not" indicates we are looking for the correct/safe practice.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

MTPs are safest during the first trimester (the first 12 weeks). Therefore, performing a procedure within this timeframe does not contribute to the risks of a second-trimester abortion; rather, it identifies a low-risk intervention. Options A, B, and D are all factors that exacerbate the complexity and danger of later-stage pregnancy termination.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Increased fetal development makes extraction more complex and risky.
Option B → Unqualified quacks always increase risk, regardless of timing.
Option D → Delaying the procedure increases the physiological risk to the mother.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Extreme Word Filter

Application: The keyword "NOT" directs us to the only safe or standard practice mentioned.

Final Logic: The first 12 weeks are defined as the "relatively safe window," so this cannot be a risk factor for second-trimester complications.

🧠 Memory Trick

"12 is the limit for safety."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: MTP Safety –

3 Under the MTP Act, the term "substantial risk" to the child refers to:

A The child having a different hair color than parents.

B The child being born with serious handicaps due to abnormalities.

C The child being a female.

D The child being born into a small family.

💡 Short Explanation

MTP legal grounds focus on health, not social preference. "Substantial risk" involves physical or mental deformities. The Act aims to prevent suffering from severe disabilities.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The MTP Act allows termination when there is a substantial risk that the child, if born, would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped. Option B accurately reflects this medical/legal ground.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Aesthetic traits are not health risks.
Option C → The sex of the child is never a legal ground; in fact, sex determination is illegal.
Option D → Family size is a socio-economic choice, not a medical "substantial risk."

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching

Application: The tone of the legislation is protective of health and quality of life; only B aligns with this context.

Final Logic: "Substantial risk" is a medical term reserved for congenital severe health issues.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Substantial = Serious health issue."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: MTP Act Grounds –

4 Analyze the following regarding the "Risk to life of woman" ground:
(i) It applies if the pregnancy involves a risk to her physical health.
(ii) It applies if the pregnancy involves a risk to her mental health.

A (i) is analytical, (ii) is not.

B Only (i) is a valid legal ground.

C Both (i) and (ii) are valid legal grounds for termination.

D These grounds only apply after 24 weeks.

💡 Short Explanation

MTP Act considers "health" to include both physical and mental well-being. Pregnancy can cause severe mental distress, which is a legal ground. Both are universally recognized in the MTP Act.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The legal definition of health under the MTP Act is broad. It recognizes that carrying a pregnancy to term may impose a significant risk to both the physical health and the mental health of the mother. Consequently, both statements are correct legal grounds for termination.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Both are equally valid legal concepts.
Option B → Mental health is explicitly included as a valid ground.
Option D → These grounds apply throughout the pregnancy, not just after 24 weeks.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Option Grouping

Application: Recognizing that modern health definitions always pair physical and mental status helps group them as "true."

Final Logic: Legal healthcare definitions prioritize the total well-being of the woman.

🧠 Memory Trick

"MTP = Mind + Physical health."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: MTP Act –

5 In the context of the 2017 Amendment, why is the "good faith" opinion of two practitioners required for pregnancies between 12 and 24 weeks?

A To make the process faster.

B To ensure a more rigorous medical assessment due to increased risks.

C To bypass the statutory ban on sex determination.

D Because one doctor is never enough for any surgery.

💡 Short Explanation

Later-stage abortions carry higher clinical risks. The law mandates two opinions to verify the necessity of the procedure. Increased oversight prevents misuse.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

As gestation progresses, the physiological stress and potential complications of an MTP increase significantly. The requirement for two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs) to provide a "good faith" opinion ensures that the decision is clinically validated and that the risks versus benefits are thoroughly assessed, providing a safeguard for the woman's health.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Two-doctor requirements make the process more administrative, not faster.
Option C → This requirement is intended to prevent misuse, not bypass the law.
Option D → Simple surgeries are often performed by one doctor; this is specific to the MTP Act's regulatory nature.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Substitution

Application: Substituting "Two doctors" with "Increased Oversight/Rigorous assessment" confirms the legislative intent.

Final Logic: Regulatory hurdles in medicine are almost always designed to mitigate risk.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Two doctors = Double check for safety."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: MTP Act 2017 –

6 Match the scenario with the legal requirement under the MTP (Amendment) Act:

List I	List II
1. Rape victim at 10 weeks	a. Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP)
2. Potential mental health risk at 20 weeks	b. Opinion of two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs)
3. Female foetus (no other issues)	c. Illegal / Not permitted under law
4. Fetal abnormality at 18 weeks	d. Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP)

A 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

B 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

C 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

D 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

💡 Short Explanation

Up to 20 weeks → One RMP's opinion is generally sufficient. 20–24 weeks (eligible categories) → Two RMPs' opinions are required. Sex-selective abortion is illegal.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The MTP (Amendment) Act permits termination of pregnancy under specified conditions. 10 weeks falls within the up to 20 weeks category and requires the opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner. 20 weeks lies at the threshold where two Registered Medical Practitioners are required for eligible categories such as rape survivors or women facing substantial mental or physical health risks. Termination solely because the foetus is female is prohibited under the PCPNDT Act and is therefore illegal. 18 weeks is within the up to 20 weeks period and requires the opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner. Hence, the correct matching is: 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option B → Incorrectly reverses the medical opinion requirements.
Option C → Incorrectly classifies the legal status of sex-selective abortion and fetal abnormality.
Option D → Incorrectly matches multiple legal requirements.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Legal Threshold Analysis

Application: Match each case based on gestational age and the legal provisions of the MTP (Amendment) Act.

Final Logic:

Up to 20 weeks → One RMP
20–24 weeks → Two RMPs (specified categories)
Sex selection → Illegal

🧠 Memory Trick

"20–1, 20–24–2, Sex Selection–Never."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

7 Analytical thinking: If a doctor finds chromosomal abnormalities in the "fetal cells" during amniocentesis, what is the most likely next step based on the sources?

A Immediate immunization of the mother.

B Counseling the parents on the risk of serious handicaps/abnormalities.

C Determining the sex of the child for the parents.

D Ignoring the findings as they are minor.

💡 Short Explanation

Amniocentesis is a diagnostic tool for genetic disorders. Ethical medical practice requires informing the parents. Counseling allows parents to make informed decisions.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic disorders (like Down syndrome). If abnormalities are found, the medical responsibility is to provide genetic counseling, explaining the implications of the finding so the parents can understand the potential for future health issues in the child.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Immunization does not treat genetic chromosomal defects.
Option C → This is illegal and contrary to the purpose of the test.
Option D → Chromosomal abnormalities are rarely "minor" and cannot be ignored in clinical practice.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching

Application: Medical ethics prioritize informed consent and patient guidance in the face of diagnosis.

Final Logic: The goal of diagnostic testing is information, leading to counseling.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Test result = Counseling session."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Amniocentesis –

8 How does the analysis of "dissolved substances" in amniotic fluid differ from cell analysis?

A Substances determine the mother's age, cells determine the foetus's age.

B Both are used together to test for genetic disorders like Down syndrome.

C Dissolved substances are only for sex determination.

D Cell analysis is for bacterial infections only.

💡 Short Explanation

Amniotic fluid contains both cells (fetal) and chemical substances. They provide a holistic picture of the fetus's health. Used for screening chromosomal anomalies.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Amniocentesis involves analyzing the amniotic fluid, which contains both cells shed by the fetus and various chemical substances. Both are analyzed to screen for congenital conditions such as Down syndrome, chromosomal anomalies, and metabolic disorders.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Neither is used to determine the mother's age (which is known) or just the fetus's age.
Option C → Using these for sex determination is an illegal misuse, not the medical purpose.
Option D → Cell analysis is used for genetics, not primarily for bacterial infection screening.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Elimination

Application: Options A, C, and D are factually inaccurate regarding the medical purpose of amniocentesis.

Final Logic: Genetic diagnosis relies on multiple biomarkers (cellular and biochemical).

🧠 Memory Trick

"Cells + Substances = Genetic Map."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Amniocentesis –

9 The statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination is an example of:

A A to increase population growth.

B A legal measure to check the social evil of female foeticide.

C A method to encourage illegal MTPs.

D An effort to stop genetic testing entirely.

💡 Short Explanation

Amniocentesis was misused to identify sex. This led to female foeticide. The ban protects the girl child and balances the sex ratio.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination directly contributes to female foeticide. The statutory ban is a proactive legal intervention designed to protect the female fetus and curb the social bias that devalues female life.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → The ban has no direct correlation to population growth rates.
Option C → The ban is intended to prevent illegal practices, not encourage them.
Option D → The ban is specific to sex determination, not all genetic testing.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching

Application: The social context of the curriculum explicitly links amniocentesis misuse to female foeticide.

Final Logic: Laws banning specific diagnostic uses are usually anti-discrimination measures.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Ban the test, save the girl."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Amniocentesis Misuse –

10 Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the misuse of amniocentesis as mentioned in the sources?

A Illegal MTPs performed on female foetuses.

B A "dangerous trend" in reproductive health.

C Improved maternal mortality rates.

D Violation of the legal grounds for MTP.

💡 Short Explanation

Misuse of tests does not improve maternal health. Illegal MTPs (consequence of misuse) actually increase maternal mortality. Therefore, "improvement" is the incorrect outcome.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The misuse of amniocentesis leads to female foeticide, which is accomplished through illegal MTPs. These illegal, often unsafe, procedures negatively impact reproductive health and increase risks to the mother, thus worsening—not improving—maternal mortality rates.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → This is a direct, negative consequence of misuse.
Option B → The entire phenomenon is characterized as a dangerous trend.
Option D → Sex determination is not a valid legal ground; thus, every MTP performed for this reason is a violation.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Extreme Word Filter

Application: The keyword "NOT" and the logical contradiction (misuse causing an "improvement") make C the clear outlier.

Final Logic: Negative actions produce negative outcomes; "improvement" is positive.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Misuse = Mortality goes UP, not down."

📚 Class XII – Biology – Chapter: Reproductive Health – Topic: Amniocentesis Misuse –

11 The term "Venereal Disease" implies that the primary mode of transmission is:

A Airborne.

B Through sexual intercourse.

C Through contaminated water.

D Hereditary only.

💡 Short Explanation

"Venereal" comes from Venus (the Roman goddess of love). These are infections primarily passed through sexual contact. Synonymous with STI (Sexually Transmitted Infections).

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Venereal Diseases (V D) are, by definition, infections transmitted during sexual activity. Options A, C, and D describe transmission methods (respiratory, fecal-oral, or geneti C) that are not the primary classification for VDs.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → STIs are not transmitted through the air (unlike respiratory infections).
Option C → Waterborne diseases (like Choler

A) are distinct from STIs.

Option D → While some infections can be congenital (transmitted from mother to fetus), the term "venereal" specifically highlights the sexual route of spread.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching Application: Etymology and medical terminology link "Venereal" directly to sexual transmission. Final Logic: The term is historically and medically tied to intimate contact.

🧠 Memory Trick

"V = Venus = Love/Sex."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

12 (Multiple Statement Type) Regarding the "threat to a healthy society":
(i) STIs are considered a major threat to a healthy society.
(ii) Prevention or early detection and cure are given prime consideration in RCH programmes.

A (i) is the cause, (ii) is the effect.

B (i) is false, (ii) is true.

C Both (i) and (ii) are true and related.

D (ii) is only for people over 50.

💡 Short Explanation

STIs cause infertility, cancer, and other long-term health issues, threatening societal health. RCH (Reproductive and Child Health) programmes focus on screening and treatment. The policy response is a direct reaction to the severity of the threat.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

STIs are a significant public health burden due to their long-term complications. Consequently, RCH programmes prioritize public awareness, prevention, and accessible screening, making both statements true and logically connected.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → While (ii) is a response to (i), framing it purely as "cause/effect" is less precise than acknowledging they are both true parts of the same health .
Option B → Both statements are medically and programmatically accurate.
Option D → RCH programmes target the most vulnerable, particularly those in the 15–24 age bracket, not just those over 50.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Option Grouping Application: Both statements are standard facts found in the NCERT text regarding the rationale for RCH programs. Final Logic: Public health policies are built on the premise of identifying threats and providing solutions.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Threat = RCH Action."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

13 Match the STI-related condition with its appropriate description.

List I	List II
1. Chronic STI	a. Persists for a long duration if untreated
2. Untreated Infection	b. May lead to infertility, ectopic pregnancy and cancer of the reproductive tract
3. PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)	c. Infection involving the female reproductive organs
4. Asymptomatic STI	d. Shows no obvious symptoms during the early stage

A 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

B 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

C 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

D 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

💡 Short Explanation

Some STIs remain asymptomatic in the early stages. Untreated STIs can result in serious reproductive complications. PID is a major complication affecting female reproductive organs.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The correct matching is: According to NCERT, many sexually transmitted infections remain asymptomatic during their initial stages, delaying diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, STIs may progress to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) and cause complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, stillbirths, and cancers of the reproductive tract. Therefore, the correct matching is 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option B → Incorrectly matches chronic STI and untreated infection.
Option C → Incorrectly associates PID and asymptomatic STI.
Option D → Reverses the clinical definitions of the conditions.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Concept Matching

Application: Match each STI-related condition with its defining clinical characteristic.

Final Logic: Disease condition → Appropriate clinical description.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Silent → STI, PID → Pelvis, Untreated → Complications."

📚 Recommendation: Avoid using "All of the above" or "All these are complications" as the correct answer in a Match the Following question. For CUET-style questions, each item in List I should have one unique corresponding match in List II. This makes the question objective, unambiguous, and consistent with standard exam patterns.

14 Which of the following is NOT a to remain free of these infections as per the sources?

A Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners.

B Always use condoms during coitus.

C Wait for minor symptoms like itching to disappear on their own.

D Go to a qualified doctor in case of doubt.

💡 Short Explanation

Early detection is crucial. Ignoring symptoms allows the infection to advance. Self-limiting hopes are dangerous.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Early detection is the cornerstone of STI management. Waiting for symptoms to disappear is dangerous as it allows the infection to become chronic or lead to permanent complications. Options A, B, and D are the recommended preventative and diagnostic behaviors.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Options A, B, and D are standard public health recommendations for preventing the spread of STIs.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Extreme Word Filter Application: The prompt asks for what we should not do; waiting for symptoms to disappear is the only unsafe, passive behavior listed. Final Logic: Active medical intervention is the standard of care.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Don't wait, communicate with a doctor."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs Prevention

15 In terms of the threat posed (from most dangerous to least dangerous for a healthy society, according to the sources):
(i) HIV
(ii) Hepatitis-B
(iii) Chlamydiasis (when detected early)

A (i)-(ii)-(iii)

B (iii)-(ii)-(i)

C (ii)-(i)-(iii)

D (i)-(iii)-(ii)

💡 Short Explanation

HIV is categorized as most dangerous/non-curable. Hepatitis-B is also generally classified as non-curable/chronic. Chlamydiasis is curable if detected early.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

According to the source, HIV, Hepatitis-B, and Genital Herpes are the infections that are not completely curable (and thus represent the highest long-term threat). Among curable diseases, detection status changes the risk profile. Thus, the order of danger is HIV (most severe) > Hepatitis-B > Chlamydiasis (curable).

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Options B, C, and D invert the hierarchy of severity and curability defined in the NCERT.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching Application: Curability inversely correlates with the threat level. Final Logic: Non-curable = High Threat; Curable = Low Threat.

🧠 Memory Trick

"HIV is at the top of the 'avoid' list."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

16 HIV transmission via blood transfusion is particularly dangerous because:

A It bypasses the reproductive tract.

B It can infect individuals regardless of their sexual practices.

C It is less common than sexual transmission.

D It only happens in the 15-24 age group.

💡 Short Explanation

Blood transfusion transmits virus directly into the bloodstream. It exposes individuals who are not sexually active. This makes it a universal risk rather than a behavior-specific risk.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

While sexual transmission depends on individual behavior, blood transfusion is an external medical procedure. If contaminated blood is used, it can infect anyone, including children or those who are not sexually active, making the potential for wide-scale transmission high and involuntary.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → Bypassing the tract is a mechanism, but "dangerous" refers to the target population's breadth.
Option C → While frequency varies, this doesn't explain why transfusion itself is "particularly dangerous."
Option D → HIV affects all age groups, not just 15–24.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Substitution Application: Replace "dangerous" with "inclusive of unsuspecting victims." Final Logic: Involuntary risk is universally considered a higher societal danger.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Transfusion = No choice, high risk."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

17 Regarding the curability of infections:
(i) Except for HIV, Hepatitis-B, and genital herpes, all other STIs are completely curable.
(ii) Early detection is the prerequisite for the "completely curable" status.

A (i) is true, (ii) is false

B (ii) is true, (i) is false

C Both are true

D Both are false

💡 Short Explanation

The "Big Three" non-curable STIs: HIV, Hep-B, Herpes. Early detection/treatment is the key for the curable ones to prevent permanent damage. Both are factual statements found in the text.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

The NCERT text explicitly lists HIV, Hepatitis-B, and genital herpes as the exceptions to curability. It also emphasizes that for others, timely medical attention is vital to prevent the complications mentioned in earlier questions.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Options A, B, and D deny factual content provided in the reproductive health chapter.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching Application: Directly recalling the "Non-curable" list from the textbook confirms (i) is true. Final Logic: Curable diseases require intervention; early detection ensures the intervention works.

🧠 Memory Trick

"The 3 H's (HIV, Hep-B, Herpes) are the 'Hard to Cure' ones."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

18 Arrange the following STIs based on their "curability" as per the sources (Curable to Non-Curable):
(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) Genital herpes
(iii) HIV

A (i)-(ii)-(iii)

B (iii)-(ii)-(i)

C (ii)-(i)-(iii)

D (i)-(iii)-(ii)

💡 Short Explanation

Gonorrhoea = Curable. Genital herpes = Non-curable. HIV = Non-curable. (ii) and (iii) are both non-curable, but as they appear in the list, the order is Curable → Non-curable.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Gonorrhoea is a bacterial infection that is easily treated with antibiotics (Curable). Genital herpes and HIV are viral infections described as non-curable. Therefore, the order (i)-(ii)-(iii) correctly transitions from curable to non-curable.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Options B, C, and D reverse or scramble this medical classification.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Elimination Application: Categorize by "Curable vs. Non-curable" first, then arrange. Final Logic: (i) is the only one curable, so it must be first.

🧠 Memory Trick

"G for Go (Cure), H for Hold (Non-cure)."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

📄 Passage

"STIs are a major threat to a healthy society. Therefore, prevention or early detection and cure of these diseases are given prime consideration under the reproductive health-care programmes. Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections, their incidences are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 years... Prevention is possible."

Why is the age group 15-24 highlighted in the context of STIs?

A Because they are the only ones who can be cured.

B Because their incidences of infection are reported to be very high.

C Because they are immune to minor symptoms.

D Because they do not belong to a healthy society.

💡 Short Explanation

This age group represents peak sexual activity and vulnerability. Statistics in the NCERT show high reporting for this group. Targeting them is a priority for prevention.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Public health data consistently shows that the 15–24 age range experiences the highest incidence of STIs. The NCERT highlights this group to underscore the need for targeted education and reproductive health awareness campaigns.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → No age group is the "only" one that can be cured.
Option C → No one is immune to symptoms; they are simply the most vulnerable.
Option D → This age group is central to a healthy society; the programs aim to protect them.

🎯 Strategy

Used: Contextual/Tonal Matching Application: This is a direct factual retrieval from the "Reproductive Health" chapter. Final Logic: High incidence = Priority target.

🧠 Memory Trick

"15-24 = Priority Focus."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

📄 Passage

Based on the sources, what is the ultimate consequence of ignoring "minor" early symptoms due to "social stigma"?

A The symptoms will eventually go away.

B It can lead to severe complications like ectopic pregnancies or cancer.

C It helps in building a reproductively healthy society.

D It makes the infection easier to cure later.

💡 Short Explanation

"Social stigma" causes people to hide symptoms. Hiding symptoms allows the disease to progress. Progression results in severe health crises.

✅ Correct Answer Explanation

Social stigma is a significant barrier to seeking early treatment. When patients delay care due to embarrassment, the infection progresses from the initial minor symptomatic stage to severe, irreversible stages, resulting in long-term damage such as ectopic pregnancies or reproductive tract cancer.

❓ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

Option A → STIs rarely resolve without medical treatment.
Option C → Ignoring symptoms hinders, not helps, society's health.
Option D → Delaying makes treatment harder, more complex, or impossible (for viral STIs).

🎯 Strategy

Used: Substitution Application: Replace "ignoring symptoms" with "untreated disease" to see the consequence. Final Logic: Unchecked disease always results in progression and damage.

🧠 Memory Trick

"Hide = Harm."

📚 Reproductive Health – Topic: STIs

CUET UG Biology Booster Test 3 Medical Termination and STIs

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