CUET FULL LENGTH PSYCHOLOGY TEST 1
📌 Answers are locked once submitted — results and explanations appear at the end.
QUESTION 1 OF 50
The pattern of responses an organism makes to a stimulus event that disturbs equilibrium is called:
QUESTION 2 OF 50
What is the difference between 'Primary' and 'Secondary' appraisal according to Lazarus?
QUESTION 3 OF 50
According to the Cognitive Theory of Stress, arrange the process of experiencing stress in order:
1. Stress Appraisal (Primary/Secondary)
2. External/Internal Stressor
3. Physiological/Behavioural Response
4. Resources (Physical/Personal/Social)
QUESTION 4 OF 50
Match the source of stress with its example:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Physical Stressor | a. Air pollution or crowding |
| 2. Environmental Stressor | b. Injury or lack of sleep |
| 3. Psychological Stressor | c. Conflict or frustration |
| 4. Social Stressor | d. Strained relationships or trouble with neighbours |
QUESTION 5 OF 50
Which of the following is NOT one of the internal psychological sources of stress?
QUESTION 6 OF 50
Who developed the PASS Model of Intelligence in 1994?
QUESTION 7 OF 50
Match the types of intelligence in Sternberg's Triarchic Theory with their practical descriptions:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Componential | a. Using past experiences to solve novel problems |
| 2. Experiential | b. Analytical thinking and critical problem solving |
| 3. Contextual | c. Practical intelligence or 'street smartness' |
| 4. Meta-component | d. Planning concerning what to do and how to do |
QUESTION 8 OF 50
Place the functional units of the brain in the correct sequence as they operate in the PASS model:
1. Coding or Processing (Simultaneous/Successive)
2. Planning
3. Arousal/Attention
QUESTION 9 OF 50
Which of the following is an example of 'Successive Processing' as described in the PASS model?
QUESTION 10 OF 50
In the PASS model, ___________ allows us to think of possible courses of action, implement them, and evaluate their effectiveness.
QUESTION 11 OF 50
Which battery of tests was developed by Das and Naglieri to measure basic cognitive functions independent of schooling?
QUESTION 12 OF 50
Which statement accurately differentiates between Verbal and Performance tests?
QUESTION 13 OF 50
Identify the correct components of Arthur Jensen's Hierarchical Model:
1. Level I involves associative learning where output is similar to input.
2. Level II involves cognitive competence and higher-order skills.
3. Level I involves rote learning and memory.
4. Level II involves only simple sensory motor responses.
QUESTION 14 OF 50
A ___________ involves an in-depth study of the individual in terms of her/his psychological attributes and history in the context of their psychosocial and physical environment.
QUESTION 15 OF 50
Arrange the dimensions of J.P. Guilford's Structure-of-Intellect model in the sequence: What the respondent does, Nature of information, and Form of processed information:
1. Contents
2. Products
3. Operations
QUESTION 16 OF 50
QUESTION 17 OF 50
2. Subjects are told the exact purpose of the assessment.
3. There are no correct or incorrect responses.
4. Interpretation is often lengthy and subjective.
QUESTION 18 OF 50
QUESTION 19 OF 50
QUESTION 20 OF 50
2. It consists of 10 coloured inkblots.
3. The subject is asked to tell a story about what is happening in a picture.
4. It is less structured than the Rorschach test.
QUESTION 21 OF 50
Parents who help or make decisions for their children even when assistance is not required often contribute to the child's __________.
QUESTION 22 OF 50
Which factors determine the types of behaviour an individual engages in and the amount of risk they undertake?
1. Expectations of mastery or achievement.
2. Convictions about their own effectiveness.
3. Belief that outcomes are controlled only by luck.
4. Strong sense of self-efficacy.
QUESTION 23 OF 50
Regarding self-regulation and self-monitoring:
1. Self-regulation is the ability to organise and monitor one's own behaviour.
2. People high on self-monitoring change behaviour based on external environmental demands.
3. Self-monitoring is a purely internal trait that ignores the environment.
4. Self-monitoring is the same as low self-esteem.
QUESTION 24 OF 50
A teenager observes a popular icon being disciplined and hardworking. The teenager begins to set a study schedule and rewards himself with a chocolate (self-reinforcement) after every two hours of study. This is an application of:
QUESTION 25 OF 50
Arrange the following steps of self-control techniques in a logical application order for someone trying to quit a bad habit:
1. Reward yourself for a day of successful control (Self-reinforcement).
2. Keep a diary of when the habit occurs (Observation of own behaviour).
3. Tell yourself "I will not do this" when the urge arises (Self-instruction).
QUESTION 26 OF 50
Identify the 'Four Ds' that most definitions of abnormality share as common features.
QUESTION 27 OF 50
Which of the following statements regarding the classification of psychological disorders is INCORRECT?
QUESTION 28 OF 50
Consider the following statements regarding the historical organismic approach to abnormal behaviour:
1. Hippocrates, Socrates, and Plato viewed disturbed behaviour as arising out of conflicts between emotion and reason.
2. Galen elaborated on the role of four humours (blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm) in character and temperament.
3. The Indian notion of the three doshas (vata, pitta, kapha) is considered entirely unrelated to the Greek humeral theory.
QUESTION 29 OF 50
A student experiences an irrational and intense fear of being in an enclosed space like a lift. This fear is so incapacitating that the student refuses to travel to the tenth floor of a building. This condition is a result of:
QUESTION 30 OF 50
Arrange the historical periods of abnormal psychology in chronological order, from oldest to most recent.
1. Age of Reason and Enlightenment
2. Renaissance Period
3. Ancient Theory of Supernatural Forces
4. The Middle Ages (Demonology)
QUESTION 31 OF 50
A period of depressed mood together with symptoms like constant sleep problems, tiredness, and thoughts of death defines ________.
QUESTION 32 OF 50
An individual experiences alternating periods of extreme mania (highs) and deep depression (lows). This pattern was historically referred to as manic-depressive disorder.
QUESTION 33 OF 50
Arrange the typical psychomotor symptoms of Catatonia from least to most active as described in the text:
1. Catatonic Rigidity (upright posture for hours)
2. Catatonic Stupor (motionless and silent)
3. Catatonic Posturing (awkward, bizarre positions)
QUESTION 34 OF 50
Match the Following (Category 6 Symptoms):
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Alogia | a. Poverty of speech |
| 2. Hallucination | b. False belief firmly held |
| 3. Delusion | c. Perception without external stimuli |
| 4. Inattention | d. Difficulty sustaining mental effort |
QUESTION 35 OF 50
Which of the following are considered 'Negative Symptoms' of schizophrenia?
1. Blunted and flat affect
2. Hallucinations and Delusions
3. Loss of volition (avolition)
4. Social withdrawal
QUESTION 36 OF 50
Psychotherapy is a __________ relationship between the client seeking treatment and the therapist, aimed at solving psychological problems through trust and free discussion.
QUESTION 37 OF 50
Which of the following statements correctly describe the characteristics of psychotherapeutic approaches as per the sources?
1. There is a systematic application of principles underlying different theories.
2. Psychotherapy can be practiced by anyone who has a desire to help.
3. The relationship is a confidential, interpersonal, and dynamic one.
4. All approaches are corrective and helping in nature.
QUESTION 38 OF 50
Arrange the following steps involved in the clinical formulation of a client's problem in the correct order as per Box 5.1:
1. Choice of techniques for treatment.
2. Identification of the areas to be targeted for treatment.
3. Understanding the full implications of the distress.
QUESTION 39 OF 50
Match the therapeutic goal with its intended outcome:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Reinforcing resolve | a. Improving relations and communication |
| 2. Lessening pressure | b. Facilitating decision-making |
| 3. Interpersonal relations | c. Resolve for betterment |
| 4. Awareness of choices | d. Reducing emotional pressure |
QUESTION 40 OF 50
Professional psychotherapists must adhere to specific ethical standards. Which of the following is NOT listed as a required ethical standard in the sources?
QUESTION 41 OF 50
__________ are clusters of ideas regarding the characteristics of a specific group, forming the cognitive component of prejudice.
QUESTION 42 OF 50
Match the term (List 1) with its NCERT definition (List 2):
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Prejudice | a. Negative attitude toward a particular group |
| 2. Discrimination | b. Behaving in a less positive way toward a target group |
| 3. Scapegoating | c. Blaming a minority for majority's problems |
| 4. Self-fulfilling Prophecy | d. Confirming negative expectations through one's own behavior |
QUESTION 43 OF 50
Assertion (A): The 'Kernel of Truth' concept suggests that stereotypes are maintained because people believe they contain a small element of fact. Reason (R): Even a few examples are considered sufficient by individuals to support their existing stereotypes.
QUESTION 44 OF 50
In Richard LaPiere's study, hotel managers refused service to a Chinese couple via a questionnaire but had actually provided service in person. This case illustrates that:
QUESTION 45 OF 50
Rank the following strategies for handling prejudice in the order they should be implemented to be most effective according to NCERT:
1. Correcting stereotypes through education
2. Increasing intergroup contact in a cooperative context
3. De-emphasising narrow social identities
4. Highlighting individual identity rather than group identity
QUESTION 46 OF 50
QUESTION 47 OF 50
QUESTION 48 OF 50
QUESTION 49 OF 50
QUESTION 50 OF 50
2. Increasing the apparent importance of the task.
3. Decreasing group size to two members only.
4. Strengthening group cohesiveness.
Test Complete!
Answer Review
1 The pattern of responses an organism makes to a stimulus event that disturbs equilibrium is called:
According to psychological principles, stress refers to the specific pattern of responses an organism makes to a stimulus event that disturbs its equilibrium and exceeds its ability to cope. While eustress is a positive, motivating level of stress, and burnout is a state of severe physical and emotional exhaustion caused by prolonged stress, they do not fit this exact definition. Appraisal is merely the cognitive evaluation of the stressful event, not the response itself. Therefore, stress is the correct answer.
2 What is the difference between 'Primary' and 'Secondary' appraisal according to Lazarus?
Lazarus's cognitive theory of stress explains that primary appraisal is the perception of a new environment as positive, neutral, or negative, assessing it for potential harm, threat, or challenge. Secondary appraisal is the subsequent assessment of one's coping abilities and resources to meet the perceived harm or threat. The other options incorrectly swap or misrepresent these definitions by associating them with strictly biological timing or absolute objectivity. Thus, Option B perfectly captures the difference.
3 According to the Cognitive Theory of Stress, arrange the process of experiencing stress in order:
1. Stress Appraisal (Primary/Secondary)
2. External/Internal Stressor
3. Physiological/Behavioural Response
4. Resources (Physical/Personal/Social)
According to the cognitive theory of stress, the process begins with the presence of an external or internal stressor. This stressor is evaluated against the individual's available physical, personal, and social resources. Based on these factors, primary and secondary stress appraisals occur. Finally, these cognitive appraisals directly determine the resulting physiological, behavioural, emotional, and cognitive responses.
4 Match the source of stress with its example:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Physical Stressor | a. Air pollution or crowding |
| 2. Environmental Stressor | b. Injury or lack of sleep |
| 3. Psychological Stressor | c. Conflict or frustration |
| 4. Social Stressor | d. Strained relationships or trouble with neighbours |
Physical stresses include physiological demands like lack of sleep or injury that change the body's state. Environmental stresses are unavoidable aspects of our surroundings like air pollution and crowding. Psychological stresses are internal, such as conflicts and frustrations that we generate in our own minds. Social stresses result from external interactions, like strained relationships or trouble with neighbours.
5 Which of the following is NOT one of the internal psychological sources of stress?
Psychological stresses are internal sources of stress that we generate in our own minds rather than experiencing from the outside world. These strictly include subjective experiences like frustration, conflicts, and internal pressures. In contrast, traffic snarls are classified as daily hassles or environmental stressors since they are external circumstances in our daily lives. Thus, traffic snarls are not internal psychological sources.
6 Who developed the PASS Model of Intelligence in 1994?
The Planning, Attention-arousal, and Simultaneous-successive (PASS) Model of Intelligence was developed collaboratively by J.P. Das, Jack Naglieri, and Kirby in 1994. Gardner is known for developing the theory of multiple intelligences. Sternberg proposed the triarchic theory of intelligence consisting of componential, experiential, and contextual subtheories. Jensen proposed a hierarchical model of intelligence.
7 Match the types of intelligence in Sternberg's Triarchic Theory with their practical descriptions:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Componential | a. Using past experiences to solve novel problems |
| 2. Experiential | b. Analytical thinking and critical problem solving |
| 3. Contextual | c. Practical intelligence or 'street smartness' |
| 4. Meta-component | d. Planning concerning what to do and how to do |
Componential intelligence refers to analytical thinking and critical problem solving. Experiential intelligence involves using past experiences creatively to solve novel, real-world problems. Contextual intelligence is essentially practical intelligence or 'street smartness' used to deal with daily environmental demands. The meta-component is a higher-order component involving planning concerning what to do and how to do it.
8 Place the functional units of the brain in the correct sequence as they operate in the PASS model:
1. Coding or Processing (Simultaneous/Successive)
2. Planning
3. Arousal/Attention
According to the PASS model, the state of arousal or attention is the basic first step that enables a person to process information effectively. After arousal and attention focus on relevant stimuli, the information undergoes simultaneous or successive coding and processing. Once information is attended to and processed, the final step is planning to determine, implement, and evaluate courses of action.
9 Which of the following is an example of 'Successive Processing' as described in the PASS model?
Successive processing takes place when a person remembers information serially, so the recall of one element logically leads to the recall of another. Learning digits, alphabets, and multiplication tables sequentially perfectly exemplifies this processing style. Perceiving relationships or grasping patterns like in RPM involves simultaneous processing instead. Designing a study plan exemplifies the separate planning component.
10 In the PASS model, ___________ allows us to think of possible courses of action, implement them, and evaluate their effectiveness.
In the PASS model, the planning component is activated immediately after information is attended to and processed. It allows individuals to think of possible courses of action, implement them to reach a target, and dynamically evaluate their effectiveness. Arousal and attention help focus on stimuli, while coding integrates information into knowledge systems, making planning the correct answer.
11 Which battery of tests was developed by Das and Naglieri to measure basic cognitive functions independent of schooling?
The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a comprehensive battery of tests explicitly developed by Das and Naglieri. It measures basic cognitive functions presumed to be independent of schooling, utilizing both verbal and non-verbal tasks based on the PASS model. The Differential Aptitude Tests (DAT) measure specialized skills, and Raven's Progressive Matrices is primarily a non-verbal test for general intelligence.
12 Which statement accurately differentiates between Verbal and Performance tests?
Verbal tests require subjects to provide responses either orally or in a written form, meaning they can only be administered to literate individuals. Performance tests, on the other hand, require subjects to manipulate physical objects or other materials to perform a task, bypassing the need for written language. Raven's Progressive Matrices is an example of a non-verbal test, not a verbal test.
13 Identify the correct components of Arthur Jensen's Hierarchical Model:
1. Level I involves associative learning where output is similar to input.
2. Level II involves cognitive competence and higher-order skills.
3. Level I involves rote learning and memory.
4. Level II involves only simple sensory motor responses.
Arthur Jensen's Hierarchical Model consists of cognitive abilities functioning at two specific levels. Level I involves associative learning, rote learning, and memory, where the output closely matches the input. Level II involves cognitive competence and higher-order skills required to effectively transform inputs into outputs. Statement 4 is incorrect because Level II specifically involves higher-order skills, not simple sensory-motor responses.
14 A ___________ involves an in-depth study of the individual in terms of her/his psychological attributes and history in the context of their psychosocial and physical environment.
A case study is a widely used method in clinical psychology that involves a thorough, in-depth exploration of an individual. It evaluates psychological attributes and historical background within the person's unique psychosocial and physical environment. Self-reports and psychological tests measure specific attributes, but do not provide the comprehensive, contextual history that defines a case study.
15 Arrange the dimensions of J.P. Guilford's Structure-of-Intellect model in the sequence: What the respondent does, Nature of information, and Form of processed information:
1. Contents
2. Products
3. Operations
In Guilford's Structure-of-Intellect model, 'Operations' describe what the respondent actually does mentally. 'Contents' refer to the precise nature of materials or information on which these intellectual operations are performed. Finally, 'Products' refer to the form in which this information is eventually processed by the respondent. Thus, the correct sequence matching the description is Operations, Contents, and Products.
16
Acquiescence is a known tendency in self-report measures where a subject agrees with items or questions irrespective of their specific contents, often by simply saying 'yes'. Social desirability is endorsing items strictly to appear socially acceptable, while the halo effect involves letting one favourable trait influence overall judgment. Thus, acquiescence precisely matches the given description.
17
2. Subjects are told the exact purpose of the assessment.
3. There are no correct or incorrect responses.
4. Interpretation is often lengthy and subjective.
Projective techniques utilize relatively or fully unstructured stimuli and explicitly inform the subject that there are no correct or incorrect responses. Scoring and interpretation for these specialized methods are also typically lengthy and subjective. Statement 2 is incorrect because the person being assessed is intentionally not told about the true purpose of the assessment.
18
The MMPI consists of 10 clinical subscales primarily used as a helping tool for psychiatric diagnosis. These subscales evaluate pathologies such as depression, schizophrenia, and psychopathic deviate, among others. Self-actualisation is a positive psychological concept linked to humanistic psychology (such as Maslow's theory) and is not one of the pathological subscales measured by the MMPI.
19
The halo effect occurs when raters display a distinct bias heavily influenced by a single favourable or unfavourable trait, which subsequently colours their overall judgment of a person. Assuming someone is highly competent simply because they are well-dressed is a classic example of this. Middle category and extreme response biases refer exclusively to scaling tendencies.
20
2. It consists of 10 coloured inkblots.
3. The subject is asked to tell a story about what is happening in a picture.
4. It is less structured than the Rorschach test.
The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray, and it requires subjects to creatively tell a story about characters depicted in various pictures. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rorschach test uses 10 inkblots, whereas the TAT uses up to 30 black and white picture cards. Statement 4 is incorrect because the TAT is considered slightly more structured than the Rorschach test.
21 Parents who help or make decisions for their children even when assistance is not required often contribute to the child's __________.
Warm and positive parenting generally fosters high self-esteem in children by allowing them to feel competent. However, when parents habitually help or make decisions for their children even when they do not need assistance, the children are denied independence and mastery experiences. As a direct result, these children often suffer from low self-esteem.
22 Which factors determine the types of behaviour an individual engages in and the amount of risk they undertake?
1. Expectations of mastery or achievement.
2. Convictions about their own effectiveness.
3. Belief that outcomes are controlled only by luck.
4. Strong sense of self-efficacy.
According to Bandura's social learning theory, a person's expectations of mastery or achievement and their convictions about their own effectiveness dictate the behaviours and risks they will undertake. A strong sense of self-efficacy uniquely enables individuals to confidently select and construct their life circumstances. A belief in luck refers to an external locus of control, which inherently diminishes self-efficacy.
23 Regarding self-regulation and self-monitoring:
1. Self-regulation is the ability to organise and monitor one's own behaviour.
2. People high on self-monitoring change behaviour based on external environmental demands.
3. Self-monitoring is a purely internal trait that ignores the environment.
4. Self-monitoring is the same as low self-esteem.
Self-regulation formally refers to our psychological ability to organize and monitor our own behaviour. Individuals who are high on self-monitoring are highly adaptable, changing their behaviour specifically according to the demands of the external environment. Statement 3 is false as self-monitoring relies heavily on reading the environment, and statement 4 is false as it is unrelated to low self-esteem.
24 A teenager observes a popular icon being disciplined and hardworking. The teenager begins to set a study schedule and rewards himself with a chocolate (self-reinforcement) after every two hours of study. This is an application of:
Bandura's social learning theory posits that individuals learn specific behaviours by observing and imitating others, such as popular icons or role models. Setting a study schedule and administering rewards like chocolate is a core technique of self-regulation known as self-reinforcement. Thus, the scenario elegantly combines both social learning and self-regulation techniques.
25 Arrange the following steps of self-control techniques in a logical application order for someone trying to quit a bad habit:
1. Reward yourself for a day of successful control (Self-reinforcement).
2. Keep a diary of when the habit occurs (Observation of own behaviour).
3. Tell yourself "I will not do this" when the urge arises (Self-instruction).
The psychological techniques of self-control generally start with the observation of one's own behaviour to actively gather necessary information about the habit. Next, self-instruction is used to verbally direct and regulate behaviour precisely when the urge occurs. Finally, self-reinforcement is applied by rewarding oneself when the desired behaviour has been successfully maintained.
26 Identify the 'Four Ds' that most definitions of abnormality share as common features.
Most clinical definitions of abnormality share essential common features often referred to collectively as the 'four Ds'. These are deviance (unusual or extreme behaviour), distress (unpleasant to the person), dysfunction (interfering with daily activities), and danger (posing a threat to themselves or others). The other options incorrectly substitute clinical symptoms like delusion or depression.
27 Which of the following statements regarding the classification of psychological disorders is INCORRECT?
Statement D is factually incorrect because the DSM-5 is not the only manual providing diagnostic guidelines. The ICD-10, prepared by the World Health Organisation, also provides comprehensive descriptions of clinical features and diagnostic guidelines for each disorder. Furthermore, the ICD-10 is officially used in India and elsewhere for this diagnostic purpose.
28 Consider the following statements regarding the historical organismic approach to abnormal behaviour:
1. Hippocrates, Socrates, and Plato viewed disturbed behaviour as arising out of conflicts between emotion and reason.
2. Galen elaborated on the role of four humours (blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm) in character and temperament.
3. The Indian notion of the three doshas (vata, pitta, kapha) is considered entirely unrelated to the Greek humeral theory.
In ancient Greece, philosopher-physicians like Hippocrates, Socrates, and Plato developed the organismic approach, explicitly viewing disturbed behaviour as a conflict between emotion and reason. Galen elaborated on the four biological humours dictating temperament. Statement 3 is entirely incorrect because the Greek humoural theory is actually very conceptually similar to the Indian notion of the three doshas (vata, pitta, kapha).
29 A student experiences an irrational and intense fear of being in an enclosed space like a lift. This fear is so incapacitating that the student refuses to travel to the tenth floor of a building. This condition is a result of:
Specific phobias involve deeply irrational and intense fears related to specific objects, animals, or situations, such as being in an enclosed space like a lift. This definition directly matches the student's incapacitating fear. Agoraphobia specifically refers to the broader fear of entering unfamiliar situations or leaving one's home, which is different from a targeted spatial fear.
30 Arrange the historical periods of abnormal psychology in chronological order, from oldest to most recent.
1. Age of Reason and Enlightenment
2. Renaissance Period
3. Ancient Theory of Supernatural Forces
4. The Middle Ages (Demonology)
Historically, abnormal behaviour was initially attributed to supernatural and magical forces. This was followed by the Middle Ages, marked by prominent demonology and superstition. Next came the Renaissance period, which brought increased humanism and scientific curiosity. Finally, the 17th and 18th centuries were known as the Age of Reason and Enlightenment, introducing the objective scientific method.
31 A period of depressed mood together with symptoms like constant sleep problems, tiredness, and thoughts of death defines ________.
Major depressive disorder is clinically defined as a period of depressed mood or loss of interest, fundamentally accompanied by symptoms such as constant sleep problems, profound tiredness, slowed behaviour, and thoughts of death or suicide. Bipolar disorder, in stark contrast, involves alternating periods of both severe mania and depression. Thus, Major Depressive Disorder fits the description perfectly.
32 An individual experiences alternating periods of extreme mania (highs) and deep depression (lows). This pattern was historically referred to as manic-depressive disorder.
Bipolar I disorder involves intense, alternating episodes of mania and depression, sometimes interrupted by periods of completely normal mood. Historically, these bipolar mood disorders were widely referred to in psychiatry as manic-depressive disorders. Major depressive disorder only features severe depressive lows without the manic highs.
33 Arrange the typical psychomotor symptoms of Catatonia from least to most active as described in the text:
1. Catatonic Rigidity (upright posture for hours)
2. Catatonic Stupor (motionless and silent)
3. Catatonic Posturing (awkward, bizarre positions)
In schizophrenia, severe psychomotor symptoms can take the extreme form of catatonia. A catatonic stupor is the least active state, where patients remain completely motionless and silent for long stretches. Catatonic rigidity involves maintaining a rigid, upright posture for hours. Catatonic posturing involves actively assuming awkward or bizarre positions, representing the most physically engaged state.
34 Match the Following (Category 6 Symptoms):
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Alogia | a. Poverty of speech |
| 2. Hallucination | b. False belief firmly held |
| 3. Delusion | c. Perception without external stimuli |
| 4. Inattention | d. Difficulty sustaining mental effort |
Alogia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by the poverty of speech. Hallucinations are positive symptoms defined strictly as perceptions occurring in the absence of external stimuli. A delusion is a false, pathological belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. Inattention is a key feature of ADHD where an individual has difficulty sustaining mental effort.
35 Which of the following are considered 'Negative Symptoms' of schizophrenia?
1. Blunted and flat affect
2. Hallucinations and Delusions
3. Loss of volition (avolition)
4. Social withdrawal
Negative symptoms in schizophrenia represent deep 'pathological deficits' in behaviour and thought. These debilitating deficits include poverty of speech (alogia), blunted and flat affect, loss of volition (avolition), and severe social withdrawal. Hallucinations and delusions, conversely, are positive symptoms representing 'pathological excesses'.
36 Psychotherapy is a __________ relationship between the client seeking treatment and the therapist, aimed at solving psychological problems through trust and free discussion.
Psychotherapy is fundamentally defined as a voluntary relationship established between the person seeking treatment (the client) and the professional who treats them (the therapist). The purpose is to build trust so deep psychological problems can be freely discussed. It is explicitly not a permanent relationship, as it successfully ends when the client can independently take control of their life.
37 Which of the following statements correctly describe the characteristics of psychotherapeutic approaches as per the sources?
1. There is a systematic application of principles underlying different theories.
2. Psychotherapy can be practiced by anyone who has a desire to help.
3. The relationship is a confidential, interpersonal, and dynamic one.
4. All approaches are corrective and helping in nature.
Psychotherapeutic approaches are strictly corrective and helping by nature, applying systematic principles derived from various psychological theories. They foster a highly confidential, dynamic, and interpersonal therapeutic alliance. However, statement 2 is wholly incorrect; psychotherapy cannot be practiced by just anyone, as it strictly requires practitioners to have practical training under expert supervision.
38 Arrange the following steps involved in the clinical formulation of a client's problem in the correct order as per Box 5.1:
1. Choice of techniques for treatment.
2. Identification of the areas to be targeted for treatment.
3. Understanding the full implications of the distress.
Clinical formulation is a rigorous, stepwise process starting with a thorough understanding of the problem and the deep distress experienced by the client. The second step involves expertly identifying the specific problem areas that essentially need to be targeted for psychotherapy. The final step is making an informed choice regarding the most appropriate treatment techniques to be applied.
39 Match the therapeutic goal with its intended outcome:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Reinforcing resolve | a. Improving relations and communication |
| 2. Lessening pressure | b. Facilitating decision-making |
| 3. Interpersonal relations | c. Resolve for betterment |
| 4. Awareness of choices | d. Reducing emotional pressure |
Psychotherapies aim to successfully achieve several specific therapeutic goals. Reinforcing a client's resolve directly leads to a strong resolve for betterment (1-c). Lessening pressure relates functionally to reducing the client's emotional pressure (2-d). Improving interpersonal relations fosters far better social communication (3-a). Creating awareness of choices directly facilitates the client's autonomous decision-making (4-b).
40 Professional psychotherapists must adhere to specific ethical standards. Which of the following is NOT listed as a required ethical standard in the sources?
Rigorous ethical standards in psychotherapy dictate maintaining client confidentiality, respecting human rights and dignity, and securing informed consent before treatment. The overarching goal of therapy is to deeply empower the client to handle their own problems and life choices autonomously. Therefore, making the therapist the sole decision-maker for the client's life completely contradicts therapeutic ethics.
41 __________ are clusters of ideas regarding the characteristics of a specific group, forming the cognitive component of prejudice.
A stereotype is a persistent cluster of ideas regarding the characteristics of a specific group, where all members of the group are broadly assumed to possess those exact traits. Stereotypes exclusively form the cognitive component of prejudice, often consisting of highly undesirable characteristics that lead to negative attitudes toward the target group. Values and norms refer to moral principles and social rules, respectively.
42 Match the term (List 1) with its NCERT definition (List 2):
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| 1. Prejudice | a. Negative attitude toward a particular group |
| 2. Discrimination | b. Behaving in a less positive way toward a target group |
| 3. Scapegoating | c. Blaming a minority for majority's problems |
| 4. Self-fulfilling Prophecy | d. Confirming negative expectations through one's own behavior |
Prejudice represents the deeply negative attitude held towards a particular group. Discrimination is the overt behavioural component where one actively behaves less positively towards a target group. Scapegoating occurs when a majority unjustly blames a weaker minority for its own problems. A self-fulfilling prophecy happens when a target group's own behaviour ironically confirms the negative expectations directed at them.
43 Assertion (A): The 'Kernel of Truth' concept suggests that stereotypes are maintained because people believe they contain a small element of fact. Reason (R): Even a few examples are considered sufficient by individuals to support their existing stereotypes.
The 'Kernel of truth' concept correctly explains that harmful stereotypes persist because people firmly believe there is some tiny foundational truth to them. Even if only a few isolated or cherry-picked examples exist, individuals will use them as thoroughly sufficient evidence to desperately validate and support their overarching stereotype. Thus, the reason correctly and logically explains the assertion.
44 In Richard LaPiere's study, hotel managers refused service to a Chinese couple via a questionnaire but had actually provided service in person. This case illustrates that:
Richard LaPiere's famous study demonstrated a stark and clear disconnect between stated attitudes and actual behaviour. While the hotel managers' questionnaire responses showed a strongly negative attitude toward the Chinese, their actual behaviour of warmly providing accommodation was positive. This perfectly illustrates that explicitly stated attitudes do not always accurately predict how an individual will genuinely behave in real life.
45 Rank the following strategies for handling prejudice in the order they should be implemented to be most effective according to NCERT:
1. Correcting stereotypes through education
2. Increasing intergroup contact in a cooperative context
3. De-emphasising narrow social identities
4. Highlighting individual identity rather than group identity
Highly effective strategies for handling systemic prejudice follow a logical psychological progression. First, damaging stereotypes must be rigorously corrected through education and information dissemination. Next, intergroup contact should be genuinely increased in a cooperative context. Following this, narrow and divisive social identities should be de-emphasized. Finally, individual identities should be proudly highlighted over group identities.
46
The passage explicitly and clearly states that the active enhancement of performance (known as social facilitation) in the presence of others occurs specifically when a person's efforts are "individually evaluated". Conversely, when efforts are pooled rather than individually evaluated, it reliably leads to a measurable reduction in effort known as social loafing.
47
Social loafing is explicitly defined in the provided passage as a reduction in individual effort when working on a collective task where outputs are pooled. This phenomenon allows members to relax and become less productive 'free riders'. Therefore, the claim that it motivates individuals to work harder than when alone directly contradicts the foundational concept of social loafing.
48
Latane's psychological experiment demonstrated that while the total volume of noise predictably went up with a larger group (Assertion A), the individual effort per participant actually dropped (Reason R). Both statements are factually true based on the study. However, the drop in individual contribution (Reason R) does not cause or logically explain the increase in total group noise (Assertion A).
49
The passage uses the common game of tug-of-war to deeply illustrate social loafing, noting that it is impossible to reliably identify how much force each individual member exerts. This anonymity provides a convenient opportunity for group members to relax their efforts. When a participant reduces their effort to unfairly take advantage of the group's pooled output, they become a 'free rider'.
50
2. Increasing the apparent importance of the task.
3. Decreasing group size to two members only.
4. Strengthening group cohesiveness.
Social loafing can be effectively and practically reduced by making individual efforts actively identifiable and by significantly increasing the apparent importance or value of the collective task. Strengthening group cohesiveness also directly increases the motivation for a successful group outcome, sharply reducing loafing. However, decreasing group size specifically to two members is not listed as a standard psychological strategy to reduce social loafing.
