CUET UG Biology Booster Test 3 Development and Parturition
📌 Answers are locked once submitted — results and explanations appear at the end.
QUESTION 1 OF 20
Statement I: The meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed only after the sperm enters the cytoplasm.
Statement II: The sex of the baby is determined by the chromosomal contribution of the sperm at the time of fertilization.
QUESTION 2 OF 20
Which factor is NOT a biological reality in human sex determination?
QUESTION 3 OF 20
Arrange the following cellular events from fertilization to implantation in the correct order:
1. Completion of the second meiotic division of the oocyte.
2. Formation of 2-, 4-, 8-, and 16-blastomere stages.
3. Fusion of the haploid nuclei to form a diploid zygote.
4. Formation of the morula.
QUESTION 4 OF 20
The transition from morula to blastocyst involves:
QUESTION 5 OF 20
Match the Following
| Column I (Component) | Column II (Developmental Fate) |
|---|---|
| 1. Trophoblast | i. Attaches to endometrium |
| 2. Inner Cell Mass | ii. Differentiates into the embryo |
| 3. Stem Cells | iii. Potency to form all tissues |
| 4. Blastocyst | iv. Embeds in the uterine wall |
QUESTION 6 OF 20
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the blastocyst stage?
QUESTION 7 OF 20
Multiple Statement Type
Statement I: Implantation occurs before the trophoblast layer appears.
Statement II: Implantation is the embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium.
QUESTION 8 OF 20
The rapid division of uterine cells during implantation serves to:
QUESTION 9 OF 20
QUESTION 10 OF 20
QUESTION 11 OF 20
Match the Following:
| Column I (Hormone) | Column II (Function/Source) |
|---|---|
| 1. hCG | i. Produced only during pregnancy |
| 2. Relaxin | ii. Secreted by ovary in later pregnancy |
| 3. Oxytocin | iii. Released from maternal pituitary for birth |
| 4. Progestogens | iv. Produced by placenta for maintenance |
QUESTION 12 OF 20
Which of the following is NOT a reason for the increased levels of maternal hormones (cortisol, prolactin, etc.)?
QUESTION 13 OF 20
The presence of stem cells in the inner cell mass is significant because:
QUESTION 14 OF 20
The appearance of structures from the inner cell mass: 1. Mesoderm 2. Ectoderm and Endoderm 3. All tissues/organs
QUESTION 15 OF 20
By the end of the first trimester, which is NOT typically fully developed?
QUESTION 16 OF 20
At which stage can a doctor first listen to the fetal heart sound?
QUESTION 17 OF 20
Statement I: Appearance of hair on the head is observed during the fifth month. Statement II: By the end of nine months, the fetus is ready for parturition.
QUESTION 18 OF 20
The separation of eyelids and formation of eyelashes occurs at:
QUESTION 19 OF 20
Which of the following is NOT part of the neuroendocrine mechanism of parturition?
QUESTION 20 OF 20
Why is breast-feeding recommended during the initial period of infant growth?
Test Complete!
Answer Review
1 Statement I: The meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed only after the sperm enters the cytoplasm.
Statement II: The sex of the baby is determined by the chromosomal contribution of the sperm at the time of fertilization.
The secondary oocyte completes meiosis II only after fertilization. The ovum always contributes an X chromosome. The X or Y chromosome carried by the sperm determines the sex of the offspring.
Statement I is correct because the secondary oocyte remains arrested at metaphase II of meiosis and completes meiosis II only after the entry of the sperm into its cytoplasm during fertilization. Statement II is also correct because the ovum always contributes an X chromosome, whereas the sperm contributes either an X or a Y chromosome. Fertilization by an X-bearing sperm produces an XX (female) offspring, while fertilization by a Y-bearing sperm produces an XY (male) offspring. Thus, the sex of the baby is determined by the sperm. Therefore, both statements are correct.
- Option A → Incorrect because Statement II is also correct.
- Option B → Incorrect because Statement I is also correct.
- Option D → Incorrect because both statements are scientifically correct.
Used: Statement Verification
Application: Evaluate each statement independently using NCERT concepts of fertilization and sex determination.
Final Logic: Since both statements are individually correct, the correct answer is Option C.
"Sperm Starts Meiosis II and Sets the Sex."
2 Which factor is NOT a biological reality in human sex determination?
Mothers are homogametic (XX). They produce only one type of gamete (X). Heterogametic refers to males (XY).
In humans, females are homogametic (producing only X-bearing ov A), whereas males are heterogametic (producing X-bearing and Y-bearing sperm). Thus, stating the mother is heterogametic is biologically false.
- Option A: Statistically, there is a 50% chance for either sex.
- Option C: True; the sperm's chromosomal content determines sex.
- Option D: True; sex is fixed at the moment of zygote formation.
Used: Extreme Word Filter Application: Identify the false statement regarding human genetics (heterogamety). Final Logic: Females are XX (homogametic C), not heterogametic.
"Mother-Homogametic, Father-Heterogametic."
3 Arrange the following cellular events from fertilization to implantation in the correct order:
1. Completion of the second meiotic division of the oocyte.
2. Formation of 2-, 4-, 8-, and 16-blastomere stages.
3. Fusion of the haploid nuclei to form a diploid zygote.
4. Formation of the morula.
Sperm entry completes meiosis II of the secondary oocyte. Male and female pronuclei fuse to form the diploid zygote. The zygote undergoes cleavage to produce blastomeres, which later form the morula.
The correct chronological sequence begins when the entry of the sperm triggers the completion of the second meiotic division of the secondary oocyte (1). This produces the mature ovum and the second polar body. The male and female pronuclei then fuse (syngamy) to form the diploid zygote (3). The zygote undergoes successive mitotic cleavage divisions, producing 2-, 4-, 8-, and 16-blastomere stages (2). When the embryo reaches the 8–16 blastomere stage, it forms a morula (4), which later develops into a blastocyst before implantation. Therefore, the correct sequence is 1 → 3 → 2 → 4.
- Option B → Incorrect because syngamy cannot occur before the completion of meiosis II, and the morula forms only after cleavage.
- Option C → Incorrect because cleavage begins only after the diploid zygote is formed through syngamy.
- Option D → Incorrect because the morula is formed much later, after fertilization and several cleavage divisions.
Used: Chronological Sequence Analysis
Application: Arrange the developmental events from fertilization through the early stages of embryonic development.
Final Logic: Meiosis II completion → Syngamy → Cleavage → Morula is the correct biological sequence.
"Meiosis → Merge → Multiply → Morula."
4 The transition from morula to blastocyst involves:
Morula (solid ball) to Blastocyst (hollow ball). Differentiation into Trophoblast and ICM occurs.
As the morula continues to divide and moves towards the uterus, it transforms into a blastocyst. This stage is characterized by the rearrangement of blastomeres into an outer layer (trophoblast) and an inner group of cells (inner cell mass) surrounding a cavity (blastocoel).
- Option A: This is a movement, not a transition of structure.
- Option C: Heart formation occurs much later (Organogenesis).
- Option D: Colostrum secretion occurs postpartum.
Used: Contextual Matching Application: Match the structural change (morula to blastocyst) with its defining anatomical feature. Final Logic: Blastocyst = Trophoblast + Inner Cell Mass.
"Blastocyst = Outer layer + Inner mass."
5 Match the Following
| Column I (Component) | Column II (Developmental Fate) |
|---|---|
| 1. Trophoblast | i. Attaches to endometrium |
| 2. Inner Cell Mass | ii. Differentiates into the embryo |
| 3. Stem Cells | iii. Potency to form all tissues |
| 4. Blastocyst | iv. Embeds in the uterine wall |
Matches structure to its biological function.
Trophoblast (1) interacts with the endometrium (i). Inner Cell Mass (2) becomes the embryo (ii). Stem cells (3) in the ICM have pluripotency (iii). The blastocyst (4) is the structure that embeds into the uterine wall (iv).
- All other options misalign these well-defined developmental roles.
Used: Option Grouping Application: Align the term with its corresponding, well-established definition in NCERT. Final Logic: A is the only logically consistent mapping.
D).
6 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the blastocyst stage?
Blastocyst > Morula (8-16 cells). 8 cells is a developmental stage before blastocyst formation.
A blastocyst consists of a trophoblast and an inner cell mass; it has significantly more than 8 cells. The 8-celled stage is specifically associated with the early morula, not the blastocyst.
- Option A, B, and D are all characteristic features of the blastocyst/implantation phase.
Used: Elimination Application: Eliminate features characteristic of the blastocyst to find the one belonging to an earlier stage. Final Logic: Blastocyst structure is more complex than a simple 8-cell morula.
"8 is a Morula, Blastocyst is more."
7 Multiple Statement Type
Statement I: Implantation occurs before the trophoblast layer appears.
Statement II: Implantation is the embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium.
The trophoblast develops during the blastocyst stage. Implantation occurs only after the blastocyst is formed. Implantation is the embedding of the blastocyst into the uterine endometrium.
Statement I is incorrect because the trophoblast develops as the outer cell layer of the blastocyst before implantation begins. It plays a crucial role in attaching the blastocyst to the uterine endometrium and initiating implantation. Statement II is correct because implantation is the process by which the blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. Following implantation, the trophoblast proliferates and contributes to the formation of the placenta. Therefore, Statement I is false and Statement II is true, making Option B the correct answer.
- Option A → Incorrect because Statement I is false, whereas Statement II is true.
- Option C → Incorrect because implantation cannot occur before the trophoblast is formed.
- Option D → Incorrect because Statement II correctly defines implantation.
Used: Prerequisite Identification
Application: Determine whether implantation can occur without prior blastocyst and trophoblast formation.
Final Logic: Blastocyst (with trophoblast) forms first, followed by implantation into the endometrium.
(The blastocyst, containing the trophoblast, forms before it burrows into the endometrium.)
8 The rapid division of uterine cells during implantation serves to:
Uterine wall reaction to blastocyst. Uterine cells divide to envelop/embed the embryo.
As the blastocyst embeds in the endometrium, the surrounding uterine cells divide rapidly and cover it. This process effectively buries the embryo within the uterine wall, securing it for further development.
- Option A: Sperm are nourished in the fallopian tube/vagina.
- Option C: Triggered by fertilization, not implantation.
- Option D: Occurs at birth (parturition).
Used: Substitution Application: Replace "rapid division of uterine cells" with the action of embedding. Final Logic: The uterine wall adapts to secure the implanting blastocyst.
"Covering = Securing the blastocyst."
9
Passage lists: O2 supply, CO2 removal, waste removal, umbilical transport. Formation of germ layers is an embryonic process, not a placental one.
The placenta facilitates substance exchange (nutrients/waste) and acts as an endocrine tissue. The formation of the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) is an activity of the inner cell mass (embryo), not the placenta.
- Options A, B, and D are all explicitly or implicitly described as functions of the placenta in the passage and NCERT.
Used: Extreme Word Filter Application: Scan the provided passage text for the listed functions and identify the outlier. Final Logic: Placenta = Exchange/Endocrine; Embryo = Germ layers.
"Placenta = Exchange, Embryo = Germ layers."
10
Connection bridge. Nutrient/Waste transport.
The placenta and the umbilical cord together serve as the vital physiological bridge between the maternal blood supply and the developing fetus, enabling the transfer of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials.
- Option A: The fetus must be in the uterus, not the ampulla.
- Option C: Determined by sperm at fertilization.
- Option D: First meiotic division occurs during oogenesis.
Used: Contextual Matching Application: Match the combined unit (placenta + cor
- D) to its essential life-support role. Final Logic: They act as the transport link between mother and fetus.
"Placenta + Cord = Maternal-Fetal Link."
11 Match the Following:
| Column I (Hormone) | Column II (Function/Source) |
|---|---|
| 1. hCG | i. Produced only during pregnancy |
| 2. Relaxin | ii. Secreted by ovary in later pregnancy |
| 3. Oxytocin | iii. Released from maternal pituitary for birth |
| 4. Progestogens | iv. Produced by placenta for maintenance |
hCG is pregnancy-specific. Relaxin is ovarian/late-pregnancy. Oxytocin is maternal pituitary (parturition). Progestogens are placental.
Each hormone is correctly matched: hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is exclusive to pregnancy (i); Relaxin is ovarian and late-stage (ii); Oxytocin acts during birth from the pituitary (iii); Progestogens are essential for uterine maintenance (iv).
- Other options mismatch the specific physiological sources and timing of these crucial pregnancy hormones.
Used: Option Grouping
Application: Match the hormone name with its primary NCERT-defined source and timing.
Final Logic: Option A correctly maps each hormone to its corresponding biological role.
"hCG-Only, Relaxin-Later, Oxytocin-Birth, Progest-Maintain."
12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for the increased levels of maternal hormones (cortisol, prolactin, etc.)?
Cleavage occurs due to zygote's own cycle. Maternal hormones support the gestation period, not the initial cleavage.
Increased maternal hormones like cortisol, prolactin, and thyroxine are essential for supporting the mother's metabolic state and fetal growth during gestation. The first cleavage division is a purely cellular event occurring shortly after fertilization, independent of maternal systemic hormones.
- Options A, B, and C are the core biological reasons for the surge in pregnancy-related hormones.
Used: Elimination
Application: Eliminate fetal growth and metabolic support roles to find the developmental mismatch.
Final Logic: Cleavage is an intrinsic embryonic event, not regulated by late-gestation maternal hormones.
"Hormones = Growth, Cleavage = Division."
13 The presence of stem cells in the inner cell mass is significant because:
ICM contains stem cells. These are pluripotent. They form the body (all organs).
The inner cell mass (ICM) is known to contain stem cells. These cells exhibit potency (pluripotency), meaning they can differentiate into all the different tissues and organs that make up the human body.
- Option A: Trophoblast forms from outer cells.
- Option C: Oxytocin is pituitary-derived.
- Option D: Prevention of polyspermy is a zona pellucida function.
Used: Contextual Matching
Application: Define the role of stem cells in embryogenesis.
Final Logic: Stem cells = Tissue/Organ differentiation.
"Stem Cells = Building Blocks of Body."
14 The appearance of structures from the inner cell mass: 1. Mesoderm 2. Ectoderm and Endoderm 3. All tissues/organs
Ectoderm and endoderm form first. Mesoderm appears subsequently. The three layers form all organs.
After implantation, the inner cell mass differentiates into the ectoderm and endoderm (2). Shortly after, the mesoderm appears between them (1). These three germ layers then give rise to all tissues and organs in the adult (3).
- Other sequences fail to reflect the chronological order of germ layer differentiation (Gastrulation).
Used: Elimination
Application: Identify the primary layer formation followed by secondary formation.
Final Logic: Germ layers sequence (Ecto/Endo > Meso > Tissues).
"2 Layers (E & E), then Middle (M), then Organs."
15 By the end of the first trimester, which is NOT typically fully developed?
Eyelashes appear in the 2nd trimester (5th month). 12 weeks includes limbs and genitals.
By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), the fetus has well-developed limbs, digits, and external genital organs. Major organ systems are also formed. Eyelashes and eyelids are features that develop during the second trimester.
- Options A, B, and D are all classic developmental milestones reached by the end of the first trimester.
Used: Extreme Word Filter
Application: Scan for the feature appearing latest in the gestation timeline.
Final Logic: Eyelashes are a second-trimester development.
"1st Trimester = Organs/Limbs; 2nd = Hair/Eyelashes."
16 At which stage can a doctor first listen to the fetal heart sound?
Heart is the first organ formed. Visible/audible early.
The first sign of a growing fetus, observed through a stethoscope, is the heart sound. This occurs by the end of the first month of pregnancy.
- Options B, C, and D occur after the heart has already formed and started beating.
Used: Contextual Matching
Application: Recall the very first organogenesis milestone.
Final Logic: Heart formation = 1 month.
"Heart at Month One."
17 Statement I: Appearance of hair on the head is observed during the fifth month. Statement II: By the end of nine months, the fetus is ready for parturition.
Month 5 = Hair and movement. Month 9 = Full term/delivery.
Both statements accurately summarize key gestational milestones. The fifth month marks the emergence of hair on the head and fetal movement. By the ninth month, the development is complete, and the fetus is prepared for delivery.
- The statements accurately reflect the NCERT timeline.
Used: Substitution
Application: Confirm both facts against standard developmental charts in NCERT.
Final Logic: Both developmental timeline facts are accurate.
"Five-Hair, Nine-Done."
18 The separation of eyelids and formation of eyelashes occurs at:
Occurs in 2nd trimester. Roughly 5-6 months.
By the end of the second trimester (approx. 24 weeks), the fetus shows development of the body, including the separation of eyelids and the formation of eyelashes.
- Option A (12 weeks) is too early; C and D are near the end of gestation.
Used: Elimination
Application: Eliminate the end of the first trimester (12 weeks) to identify the second-trimester timing.
Final Logic: Eyelash development is a mid-gestation milestone.
"Six Months = Eyelashes/Lids."
19 Which of the following is NOT part of the neuroendocrine mechanism of parturition?
Parturition is the birth process. Regeneration of the endometrium is part of the menstrual/recovery cycle.
Parturition is triggered by a neuroendocrine reflex involving the fetal ejection reflex (A), which stimulates the maternal pituitary to release oxytocin (B), causing stronger uterine contractions (C). Endometrial regeneration occurs during the menstrual cycle, not during birth.
- Options A, B, and C are the core components of the birth process.
Used: Elimination
Application: Eliminate the components of the birth reflex to identify the process related to the menstrual cycle.
Final Logic: Parturition is an expulsive, not regenerative, event.
"Birth = Expulsion, Not Regeneration."
20 Why is breast-feeding recommended during the initial period of infant growth?
Colostrum = First milk. Rich in IgA (antibodies). Provides infant immunity.
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the mammary glands during the first few days of lactation, is highly recommended because it contains essential antibodies (Ig A) that provide the newborn with resistance against diseases.
- Options A, C, and D are physiologically incorrect or unrelated to breastfeeding.
Used: Contextual Matching
Application: Match the term "Colostrum" with "Immunity/Antibodies."
Final Logic: Colostrum is immunologically protective.
"Colostrum = Antibodies = Protection."
